Zach LaVine has been one of the many players to watch out for in the upcoming free agency period which officially begins on June 30th. He will be an unrestricted free agent and there have been rumors that he would be heavily targeted by various teams, including the Los Angeles Lakers and Portland Trail Blazers.
Of course, LaVine just had a great season with the Chicago Bulls where it became clear that he could make waves with some solid pieces alongside him. LaVine, Lonzo Ball, and DeMar DeRozan were fantastic together and if it weren't for injuries, they could have gone far in the playoffs. Despite this, there were rumblings that he had plans to leave Chicago. Now, according to Bleacher Report, LaVine is expected to stay.
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Per B/R:
"Two-time All-Star Zach LaVine is expected to re-sign with the Chicago Bulls once the free-agency negotiation period opens June 30, sources told B/R.
LaVine’s free agency has generated plenty of conversation among NBA personnel over the past few weeks. But despite rumblings that the Portland Trail Blazers, San Antonio Spurs, Atlanta Hawks and Los Angeles Lakers will make plays for LaVine, the coveted swingman is likely to remain with his current team."
The max contract for LaVine would be for five seasons at a price of $200 million which means he would make an average annual salary of $40 million. That's a pretty great chunk of change, and we're sure the Bulls would be more than happy to pay it.
Let us know where you think LaVine should go, in the comments below.
[Via]
